Liberty Baptist Church

There were several things that spoke to my heart in this message. I can very much relate to the story of your bitter pastor and the spiritual policing that goes on with the bitter. I have long suspected what we experienced was a reflection of things done by them in the past which they were projecting on us. I have also experienced this with family. Bitterness leaves a legacy. And it polutes thoroughly.

This first sermon is lengthy and involved, but really gives the foundational precepts of understanding the Book of Revelation. It will make the rest of the messages fall in place better. Good investment of time.

I'm enjoying your series on Revelation. You are far from boring and are a great teacher of the Word. Thanks for posting your sermons!

Dr. Spiros Zodhiates gives his understanding of Matt 5:31, 32 by paraphrasing in the English language, which we less technical folks can grasp, as he gives an exegetical rendering of these two pivotal verses as follows: Matthew 5:31- 32: “And it was said, If a licentious person dismisses his own wife, let him give her a bill of divorcement (so she can remarry). But I say unto you that he who (the licentious person who lusts after another woman, married, divorced, or unmarried) dismisses his own wife but for the reason of fornication (sexual infidelity on her part) causes adultery against her (makes her appear as if she were put away because of her sexual infidelity), and he who marries a woman who has been thus dismissed assumes upon himself the stigma of adultery which she has borne from the moment her husband unjustifiably dismissed her without giving her a divorce.” He has said it in a way that I believe reflects the true meaning of the verses you asked about. I use the KJV and believe it to be correct, but sometimes our familiarity with our current usage of the English language may cause us to struggle as we attempt to understand some passages that are not faulty in themselves.Thanks for asking a great question!

Question:Matthew 5:32 says that the woman divorced for fornication does not commit adultery if she remarries another man and the man who marries her does not commit adultery. On the other hand the woman who is not guilty of fornication, commits adultery if she remarries another man and the man who marries her commits adultery. Is this a correct interpretation?

The audio seems to be skipping some words and is a little jumbled at times on this sermon.