The Lord's Day and Worship

What standard is John referring to when he speaks of Lawlessness? Lawlessness refers to a standard and implies that there is some standard of Law-ful-ness. Paul is not referring to the "Judaistic" law because we are not "Judeo-christian". That is a misnomer and unbiblical.
Jesus abhored Judaism and was what he railed against. Judaism was the religion of the priests and was not Christian. This was not the standard of Law-ful-ness that Paul was referring to but the standard of Christ and the Law in Deuteronomy 5.